No. It is equal to “if not B, then not A.” You’re welcome for doing your logic 101 homework for you.
First thing I thought lmao. Somebody is taking logic
An example of why this is incorrrect.
If a card is the ace of spades, it is black.
A card is black if and only if it is the ace of spades.
There are other conditions under which B (a card is black) can happen, so the second statement is not true.
A conclusion that would be correct is “If a card is not black, it is not the ace of spades.”. The condition is that if A is true B will also always be true, so if B is false we can be sure that A is false as well - i.e. “If not B, not A”.
The first statement only tells you when B is true. It says nothing about when it is false. The second statement both tells you when B is true (if A) and when it is not (only if A). Therefore, the two statements cannot be equal.
No
Is “If B then A” equal to “B if and only if A”?
No. They are effectively the same statement.
(A <=> B ) = (A=>B AND B=> A)
Wait. If they are effectively the same statement, wouldn’t that mean they ARE equal?
You’ve have some examples, but in case they are not clear enough:
If [you have AIDS] then [you are unwell]
[You are unwell] if and only if [you have AIDS]
The first one is not the same as the second. Why? There are plenty of ways to be unwell, without necessary developing AIDS.
The first statement only defines one possible path to B, not all of them.
