If a judge is called ‘corrupt’ by a defendant outside court in front of the media, or if something more unambiguously libelous is said, can the judge sue the defendant?

    • filtoid@lemmy.ml
      link
      fedilink
      arrow-up
      7
      arrow-down
      1
      ·
      6 months ago

      Judges hate this this one trick. Call them rude words then they can’t convict you because that would make them biased!

    • stinerman [Ohio]@midwest.social
      cake
      link
      fedilink
      English
      arrow-up
      4
      ·
      edit-2
      6 months ago

      No it is not. You can appeal if the judge was biased before he was assigned the case. After he takes the case if he becomes “biased” because you called him names and defamed him…no. If you could, every defendant would try to piss off the judge so that they could win on appeal because s/he was biased during the trial.

      • AbouBenAdhem@lemmy.world
        link
        fedilink
        English
        arrow-up
        1
        arrow-down
        2
        ·
        6 months ago

        What if the judge loses the libel case? The defendant could then argue the “unfounded” libel charge was symptomatic of a preexisting bias.

        • NeoNachtwaechter@lemmy.world
          link
          fedilink
          arrow-up
          2
          ·
          6 months ago

          What if the judge loses the libel case?

          Then you should look for stronger insults LOL

          No. There is nothing to it. Real lawyers and judges have heard it before, and better.